ICND2v3 – New Questions Part 7

Premium Members: You can practice these questions with our quizzes first at:

+ Question 1 to 20
+ Question 21 to 40
+ Question 41 to 60
+ Question 61 to 80
+ Question 81 to 102

Question 1

Which two statements about the Cisco APIC-EM ACL Path Trace feature are true? (Choose two)

A. Higher-priority ACEs override lower-priority ACEs in the same ACL.
B. The trace analyzes only the egress interface of all devices in the path.
C. The trace analyzes the ingress interface and the egress interface of all devices in the path.
D. The trace analysis stops as soon as the trace encounters a deny entry on the path.
E. The trace analyzes only the ingress interface of all devices in the path.

 

Answer: A C

Explanation

Access Control List (ACL) Trace analyzes how a flow is affected by ACLs programmed on the path. After the path is calculated between the source and the destination, the ACL Trace analyzes both ingress and egress interfaces of all devices on the path -> C is correct.

Analysis of entries within an individual ACL is cumulative. That is, if a higher priority ACE is a match, lower-priority ACEs are ignored -> A is correct.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-4-x/path_trace/user-guide/b_Cisco_Path_Trace_User_Guide_1_4_0_x/b_Cisco_Path_Trace_Solution_Guide_1_4_0_x_chapter_01.html

Question 2

Which effect of the monitor session 16 source interface gigabitethernet 3/1 command is true?

A. It configures the device to monitor uni-directional source traffic for session 16.
B. It configures the device to monitor uni-directional destination traffic for session 16.
C. It configures the device interface as a source to monitor bi-directional traffic for session 16.
D. It configures the device interface as destination to monitor bi-directional traffic for session 16.

 

Answer: C

Explanation

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN) feature copies network traffic from a VLAN or group of ports to a selected port. SPAN is generally referred to as Port mirroring. An example of configuring SPAN port is shown below:

Switch(config)#monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet 0/1 Switch(config)#monitor session 1 destination interface FastEthernet 0/2

The above configuration will capture all traffic from interface FastEthernet 0/1 and send it to interface FastEthernet 0/2.

By default, both incoming and outgoing traffic is monitored.

Question 3

Which two benefits of using MPLS for WAN access are true? (Choose two)

A. It supports hub-and-spoke connectivity.
B. It supports CoS.
C. It provides VPN support.
D. It provides payload security with ESP.
E. It supports Authentication Header.

 

Answer: B C

Question 4

Which BGP command do you enter to allow a device to exchange IPv6 prefixes with its neighbor?

A. neighbor ip-address activate
B. neighbor ip-address remote-as ASN
C. router bgp ASN
D. show ip bgp neighbors

 

Answer: A

Question 5

For which type of connection is broadband PPPoE most appropriate?

A. satellite
B. DSL
C. GRE tunnel
D. PPTP

 

Answer: B

Explanation

PPPoE is commonly used in a broadband aggregation, such as by digital subscriber line (DSL). PPPoE provides authentication with the CHAP or PAP protocol.

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_17.2/02System_and_Interfaces/06Configuring_Network_Interfaces/Configuring_PPPoE

Question 6

While troubleshooting the failure of an OSPFv3 Ethernet connection between routers R1 and R2, you determine that the hello timers are mismatched and that R2 is configured with default settings. Which command do you enter on R1 to correct the problem?

A. R1(config-if)#ipv6 ospf hello-interval 20
B. R1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10
C. R1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 20
D. R1(config-if)#no ipv6 ospf hello-interval

 

Answer: D

Explanation

The default hello interval of OSPFv3 is 10 seconds when using Ethernet and 30 seconds when using nonbroadcast. To change the hello interval of OSPFv3, we use the “ipv6 ospf hello-interval seconds” command. Or we can use the “no” form to reset the hello timers to the default values.

Note: Answer B is not correct as it is for IPv4 OSPF, not IPv6 OSPF (should be “ipv6 ospf hello-interval 10, not “ip ospf hello-interval 10”)

Question 7

Which three statements about inform-request options are true? (Choose three)

A. The default number of retries is 3.
B. By default, the maximum number of pending informs is 10.
C. The default timeout is 60 seconds.
D. The default number of retries is 5.
E. The default timeout is 30 seconds.
F. By default, the maximum number of pending informs is 25.

 

Answer: A E (?) F

Explanation

SNMP inform-request. To specify inform request options, use the snmp-server inform [ pending pending ] [ retries retries ] [ timeout seconds ] command in global configuration mode.

The default value of “retries” is 3.
The default value of “timeout” is 15 seconds -> answer E is not correct but we don’t have any better choice.
The default value of “pending” is 25 (Number of unacknowledged informs to hold).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/snmp/command/nm-snmp-cr-book/nm-snmp-cr-s5.html

Question 8

Which switch port mode prevents DTP frames from being sent?

A. trunk
B. dynamic auto
C. dynamic desirable
D. nonegotiate

Answer: D

Explanation

Disable DTP with the “switchport nonegotiate” so that DTP messages are not advertised out of the interface is also a good way to prevent auto trunking.

Question 9

Which difference between PVST+ and RPVST+ is true?

A. RPVST+ is based on 802.1D and PVST+ is based on 802.1s.
B. RPVST+ is based on 802.1w and PVST+ is based on 802.1s.
C. RPVST+ has slower convergence than PVST+.
D. Only PVST+ includes Cisco proprietary standards.

 

Answer: B

Explanation

RPVST+ is the Cisco’s version of RSTP that also uses PVST+ and provides a separate instance of 802.1w per VLAN.

Note: 802.1w is also called Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

PVST+ is the Cisco proprietary enhancement for STP that provides a separate 802.1d spanning-tree instance for each VLAN.

Question 10

When troubleshooting an issue with an SVI, which three areas do you check? (Choose three)

A. frame size
B. routing
C. interfaces
D. ASIC
E. gateway
F. encapsulation

 

Answer: B C E

Question 11

Which command do you enter to configure local authentication for PPP on a Cisco device?

A. router(config-if)#ppp authentication chap callin
B. router(config)#username router password password1
C. router(config-if)#ppp authentication chap
D. router(config-if)#ppp chap password password1

 

Answer: C

Question 12

Which three statements are benefits of using a shadow router as the source of IP SLA measurements? (Choose three)

A. It offsets the resource load from a production router.
B. It can be managed independently of production network traffic.
C. It reduces traffic through existing interfaces by adding another network interface.
D. It provides a better estimation of Layer 2 network traffic.
E. It enables switched traffic to take precedence over local traffic.
F. It adds an NTP synchronization point.

 

Answer: A B D

Question 13

When a user attempts to authenticate with TACACS+, which three responses from the TACACS+ daemon are possible? (Choose three)

A. PERSIST
B. FAULT
C. CONTINUE
D. ERROR
E. ACCEPT
F. REPEAT

 

Answer: C D E

Explanation

The network access server will eventually receive one of the following responses from the TACACS+ daemon:
+ ACCEPT – The user is authenticated and service may begin. If the network access server is configured to requite authorization, authorization will begin at this time.
+ REJECT – The user has failed to authenticate. The user may be denied further access, or will be prompted to retry the login sequence depending on the TACACS+ daemon.
+ ERROR – An error occurred at some time during authentication. This can be either at the daemon or in the network connection between the daemon and the network access server. If an ERROR response is received, the network access server will typically try to use an alternative method for authenticating the user.
+ CONTINUE – The user is prompted for additional authentication information.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_usr_tacacs/configuration/15-mt/sec-usr-tacacs-15-mt-book/sec-cfg-tacacs.html

Question 14

Which three statements about QoS policing are true? (Choose three)

A. It can be applied to outbound traffic only.
B. It avoids queuing delays.
C. It drops excess packets.
D. It can be applied to inbound and outbound traffic.
E. It queues excess traffic.
F. It is configured in bits per second.

Answer: B C D

Explanation

Unlike traffic shaping, QoS policing avoids delays due to queuing.
QoS policing drops (or remarks) excess packets above the committed rates. Does not buffer.
QoS policing is configured in bytes (while QoS traffic shaping is configured in bits per second)
QoS policing can be applied to both inbound and outbound traffic (while QoS shaping can only be applied to outbound traffic)

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality-of-service-qos/qos-policing/19645-policevsshape.html

Question 15

Which three states are the HSRP stages for a router? (Choose three)

A. standby
B. speak
C. secondary
D. listen
E. learn
F. primary

 

Answer: A B D E (?)

Explanation

HSRP consists of 6 states:

State	Description
Initial	This is the beginning state. It indicates HSRP is not running. It happens when the configuration changes or the interface is first turned on
Learn	The router has not determined the virtual IP address and has not yet seen an authenticated hello message from the active router. In this state, the router still waits to hear from the active router.
Listen	The router knows both IP and MAC address of the virtual router but it is not the active or standby router. For example, if there are 3 routers in HSRP group, the router which is not in active or standby state will remain in listen state.
Speak	The router sends periodic HSRP hellos and participates in the election of the active or standby router.
Standby	In this state, the router monitors hellos from the active router and it will take the active state when the current active router fails (no packets heard from active router)
Active	The router forwards packets that are sent to the HSRP group. The router also sends periodic hello messages

Please notice that not all routers in a HSRP group go through all states above. In a HSRP group, only one router reaches active state and one router reaches standby state. Other routers will stop at listen state.

In this question there are four correct answers so maybe in the exam one correct answer would not exists but you should grasp the concept behind it.

Question 16

Which statement about link-state and distance-vector routing protocols is true?

A. Unlike distance-vector routing protocols, link-state routing protocols can cause routing loops.
B. Distance-vector routing protocols converge more quickly than link-state routing protocols.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use more memory than link-state routing protocols.
D. Unlike distance-vector routing protocols, link-state routing protocols send routing-table updates to neighbors only after adjacency is established.

 

Answer: D

Question 17

Which three statements about the ACEs that are matched by a Cisco APIC-EM ACL path are true? (Choose three)

A. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly permitted.
B. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results include all possible ACE matches.
C. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly denied.
D. ACEs are reported only if they match.
E. All ACEs found by the trace are reported, including those that fail to match.
F. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results are reported as if the default value was specified.

 

Answer: B C D

Explanation

The following rules effect the ACL path trace results:
+ Only matching access control entry (ACE) are reported.
+ If you leave out the protocol, source port, or destination port when defining a path trace, the results include ACE matches for all possible values for these fields (-> These are optional criterion and if they are omitted, all possible results are included)
+ If no matching ACEs exists in the ACL, the flow is reported to be implicitly denied (-> It is same as an access-list, which always has an implicit “deny all” statement at the end)

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-4-x/path_trace/user-guide/b_Cisco_Path_Trace_User_Guide_1_4_0_x/b_Cisco_Path_Trace_Solution_Guide_1_4_0_x_chapter_011.html

Question 18

Which command do you enter to permit IPv6 functionality on an EIGRPv3 interface?

A. Router1(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing
B. Router1(config-if)#ipv6 router eigrp 1
C. Router1(config-if)#ipv6 enable
D. Router1(config-if)#ipv6 eigrp 1

 

Answer: D

Explanation

An example of configuring EIGRPv3 is shown as below:

R1(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 1 R1(config-rtr)#router-id 1.1.1.1 R1(config-rtr)#no shutdown R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 R1(config-if)#ipv6 eigrp 1

This question asks about “on an EIGRPv3 interface” so it is the only command this is required on an EIGRPv3 interface.

Question 19

Which command do you enter to create an SVI?

A. switch(config)#interface vlan 5
B. switch(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/5
C. switch(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0.5
D. switch(vlan)#interface svi vlan 5

 

Answer: A

Question 20

Which command do you enter to protect a PortFast-enabled port against unauthorized switches on the network?

A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
B. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
D. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast

 

Answer: B

Explanation

The BPDU guard feature can be globally enabled on the switch or can be enabled per port, but the feature operates with some differences.

At the global level, you enable BPDU guard on Port Fast-enabled ports by using the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command. Spanning tree shuts down ports that are in a Port Fast-operational state if any BPDU is received on them. In a valid configuration, Port Fast-enabled ports do not receive BPDUs. Receiving a BPDU on a Port Fast-enabled port means an invalid configuration, such as the connection of an unauthorized device, and the BPDU guard feature puts the port in the error-disabled state. When this happens, the switch shuts down the entire port on which the violation occurred.

Question 21

Which VTP operating mode enables a switch to forward VTP information while ignoring synchronization?

A. off
B. server
C. transparent
D. client

 

Answer: C

Question 22

Which switch architecture is scalable, flexible, resilient, and relatively inexpensive?

A. aggregate switch
B. single switch
C. stacked switch
D. modular-chassis switch

 

Answer: C

Explanation

Some network switches have the ability to be connected to other switches and operate together as a single unit. These configurations are called stacks, and are useful for quickly increasing the capacity of a network.

Stackable switches can be added or removed from a stack as needed without affecting the overall performance of the stack. Depending on its topology, a stack can continue to transfer data even if a link or unit within the stack fails. This makes stacking an effective, flexible, and scalable solution to expand network capacity.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/smb/switches/cisco-350x-series-stackable-managed-switches/smb5252-what-is-stacking.html

Question 23

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A. 802.1x
B. IP Source Guard
C. MAC Authentication Bypass
D. 802.11n

 

Answer: A

Question 24

Which routing protocol is most appropriate for sending and receiving routes directly to and from the Internet?

A. RIP
B. BGP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

 

Answer: B

Question 25

Which command do you enter to configure client authentication for PPPoE?

A. Dev1(config-if)#ppp pap sent-username cisco password password1
B. Dev1(config)#aaa authentication ppp default local
C. Dev1(config-if)#ppp chap password password1
D. Dev1(config)#username cisco password password1

 

Answer: D

Question 26

Which two factors can affect the price of leased point-to-point WAN links? (Choose two)

A. amount of bandwidth used
B. type of traffic
C. amount of bandwidth requested
D. number of sites interconnected
E. distance between two points

 

Answer: A E

Question 27

In which LACP channel mode can the port initiate negotiations with other switch ports?

A. auto
B. active
C. desirable
D. passive

 

Answer: B

Question 28

To troubleshoot a network connection, you execute the ping utility on a route and it returns the response code Q. Which symptom is a probable root cause?

A. The ICMP time was exceed.
B. The destination is unreachable.
C. The connection timed out awaiting the reply.
D. The destination is receiving too much traffic.

 

Answer: D

Explanation

The table below lists the possible output characters from the ping facility:

Character	Description
!	Each exclamation point indicates receipt of a reply.
.	Each period indicates the network server timed out while waiting for a reply.
U	A destination unreachable error PDU was received.
Q	Source quench (destination too busy).
M	Could not fragment.
?	Unknown packet type.
&	Packet lifetime exceeded.

Question 29

Which two encapsulation types can use the keepalive command to monitor the link state of a WAN serial interface? (Choose two)

A. PPP
B. LMI
C. Frame Relay
D. HDLC
E. LCP

 

Answer: A D

Explanation

The keepalive command applies to serial interfaces that use High-Level Data Link Contol (HDLC) or PPP encapsulation. It does not apply to serial interfaces that use Frame Relay encapsulation.

For both PPP and HDLC encapsulation types, a keepalive of zero disables keepalives and is reported in the show running-config command output as keepalive disable.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/content-networking/keepalives/118390-technote-keepalive-00.html

Question 30

Which tool or utility can report whether traffic matching specific criteria can reach a specified destination on the ACLs along the path?

A. Cisco Security Device Manager
B. Cisco Prime
C. APIC-EM
D. Cisco Network Assistant

 

Answer: C

Explanation

If you performed an ACL trace, the devices show whether the traffic matching your criteria would be permitted or denied based on the ACLs configured on the interfaces.

Question 31

Which type of VPN allows for one endpoint to be learned dynamically during tunnel negotiation?

A. DMVPN
B. site-to-site VPN
C. GRE
D. client VPN

 

Answer: A

Question 32

Which function is performed by a TACACS+ server?

A. It hosts an access list that permits or denies IP traffic to the control plane of a device.
B. It provides external AAA verification.
C. It filters usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
D. It serves as a database for line passwords.

 

Answer: B

Question 33

What do SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 have in common?

A. They use the same authentication techniques.
B. They both use the local database to permit username access.
C. They both protect against message tampering in transit.
D. They both encrypt packets.

 

Answer: A

Explanation

Both SNMPv1 and v2 did not focus much on security and they provide security based on community string only. Community string is really just a clear text password (without encryption). Any data sent in clear text over a network is vulnerable to packet sniffing and interception.

SNMPv3 provides significant enhancements to address the security weaknesses existing in the earlier versions. The concept of community string does not exist in this version. SNMPv3 provides a far more secure communication using entities, users and groups.

Question 34

Which three features are QoS congestion-management tools? (Choose three)

A. PPPoE
B. PQ
C. FIFO
D. PPP
E. PDQ
F. WFQ

 

Answer: B C F

Explanation

Good reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conmgt/configuration/xe-3s/qos-conmgt-xe-3s-book/qos-conmgt-oview.html

Question 35

Which two statements about exterior gateway routing protocols are true? (Choose two)

A. BGP is considered to be a path-vector protocol.
B. They can be used to connect to another AS across the Internet as a virtual instance.
C. eBGP is considered to be a distance-vector protocol.
D. EGP is considered to be a path-vector protocol.
E. They can be used to connect to the Internet.

 

Answer: A E

Question 36

Which two characteristics of a link-state routing protocol are true? (Choose two)

A. It sends periodic updates.
B. It has a higher CPU requirement than distance-vector protocols.
C. It supports a hop-count limit.
D. It receives updates on the multicast address.
E. It receives updates on the broadcast address.

 

Answer: B D

Question 37

Which statement about OSPFv3 configuration is true?

A. You can add networks under the routing process.
B. You must configure neighbors manually.
C. You must individually add interface IP addresses to the OSPFv3 database.
D. You can enable OSPFv3 for a network under the interface configuration mode.

 

Answer: D

Question 38

In which three circumstances may your organization require a high-bandwidth Internet connection? (Choose three)

A. It uses cloud computing
B. It uses network devices that require frequent IOS upgrades
C. It uses peer-to-peer file sharing
D. It is undergoing a SAN expansion
E. It uses Infrastructure as a Service
F. It uses resource-intensive applications

Answer: A C E

Question 39

After you notice that the SNMP manager is failing to receive traps, your troubleshooting verifies that the engine ID, username, group name, and host values are
set appropriately. Which configuration item is a probable root cause?

A. Traps are disabled.
B. The snmp-server enable traps command is missing from the configuration.
C. The snmp-server host informs command is missing from the configuration.
D. The host is down.

 

Answer: B

Question 40

In the Software-Defined Networking model, where is the interface between the control plane and the data plane?

A. between the control layer and the infrastructure layer
B. between the collocated layer and the dislocated layer
C. between the control layer and application layer
D. between the application layer and the infrastructure layer

 

Answer: A

Question 41

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST+ listens and learns for a specific time period?

A. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6
B. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10
C. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

 

Answer: D

Explanation

The forward delay is the time that is spent in the listening and learning state. This time is equal to 15 sec by default, but you can tune the time to be between 4 and 30 sec.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/19120-122.html

Question 42

Which three protocols does APIC-EM support with Path Trace? (Choose three)

A. HSRP
B. ECMP
C. WLC
D. SNMP
E. SMTP
F. ECMP/TR

 

Answer: A B F

Explanation

Path Trace Supported Device Protocols and Network Connections:

Access Control List (ACL)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
Equal Cost Multipath/Trace Route (ECMP/TR)
Equal Cost Multi Path (ECMP)
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Protocol
…

For more information about these supported protocols and network connections, please visit https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-3-x/config-guide/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-3-x/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-3-x_chapter_0111.html

Question 43

Which step must you perform first to enable OSPFv3 process 20 for IPv6?

A. Enter the ipv6 router ospf 20 command to enable OSPFv3.
B. Enter the ip routing command to enable IPv4 unicast routing.
C. Enter the router ospf 20 commands to enable OSPF.
D. Enter the ipv6 unicast-routing command to enable IPv6 unicast routing.

 

Answer: D

Question 44

How can you mitigate VLAN hopping attacks?

A. Configure an unused nondefault VLAN as the native VLAN.
B. Enable dynamic ARP inspection.
C. Configure a used nondefault VLAN as the native VLAN.
D. Configure extended VLANs

 

Answer: A

Explanation

To mitigate VLAN Hopping, the following things should be done:

1) If no trunking is required, configure port as an access port, this also disables trunking on that interface:

Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access

2) If trunking is required, try to configure the port to Nonegotiate to prevent DTP frames from being sent.

Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate

3) Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN and don’t use this VLAN for any other purpose (-> Therefore answer A is correct)

Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan VLAN-ID

4) Force the switch to tag the native VLAN on all its 802.1Q trunks:

Switch(config)# vlan dot1q tag native

Question 45

Which two statements about CHAP are true? (Choose two)

A. The CHAP negotiation phase begins after the LCP phase is complete.
B. Each authenticating router has a unique username and password.
C. It uses a three-way handshake to identify the peer router.
D. The local MD5 secret is transmitted to the peer for authentication.
E. The LCP phase begins after CHAP authentication is complete.

 

Answer: A C

Explanation

After the LCP (Link Control Protocol) phase is complete, and CHAP is negotiated between both devices, the authenticator sends a challenge message to the peer.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/25647-understanding-ppp-chap.html

Question 46

After you configure multiple point-to-point tunnels on one interface, you notice that the interface is suffering from saturation. Which action do you take to correct the problem?

A. set the tunnel mode
B. set the bandwidth value
C. set the tunnel key argument
D. set the keepalive period

 

Answer: B

Question 47

Which two traffic types must always be transmitted on VLAN 1? (Choose two)

A. UDP
B. DTP
C. NTP
D. CDP
E. TCP

 

Answer: B D

Explanation

Control plane traffic (like CDP, VTP, STP…) runs on VLAN 1 by default. We cannot move these protocols to another VLAN.

Question 48

Which command can you enter to display the default VLAN?

A. show interface brief
B. show run
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interface f0/2 switchport

 

Answer: D

Explanation

An example of the “show interface e0/0 switchport” command is shown below:

Name: Et0/0
Switchport: Enabled
Administrative Mode: trunk
Operational Mode: trunk
Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q
Operational Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q
Negotiation of Trunking: On
Access Mode VLAN: 100 (VLAN0100)
Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default)
Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled
Voice VLAN: none
Administrative private-vlan host-association: none 
Administrative private-vlan mapping: none 
Administrative private-vlan trunk native VLAN: none
Administrative private-vlan trunk Native VLAN tagging: enabled
Administrative private-vlan trunk encapsulation: dot1q
Administrative private-vlan trunk normal VLANs: none
Administrative private-vlan trunk associations: none
Administrative private-vlan trunk mappings: none
Operational private-vlan: none
Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL
Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL

Appliance trust: none

This command dispalys the default access mode VLAN & native VLAN.

Question 49

Which STP mode supports spanning-tree interoperability between Cisco and non-Cisco switches?

A. MSTP
B. PVST+
C. PVSTP
D. RSTP

 

Answer: B

Explanation

PVST: Cisco has a proprietary version of STP that offers more flexibility than the CST version. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) operates a separate instance of STP for each individual VLAN. This allows the STP on each VLAN to be configured independently, offering better performance and tuning for specific conditions.

Cisco has a second proprietary version of STP that allows devices to interoperate with both PVST and CST. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+) effectively supports three groups of STP operating in the same campus network:
+ Catalyst switches running PVST
+ Catalyst switches running PVST+
+ Switches running CST over 802.1Q

To do this, PVST+ acts as a translator between groups of CST switches and groups of PVST switches. PVST+ can communicate directly with PVST by using ISL trunks. To communicate with CST, however, PVST+ exchanges BPDUs with CST as untagged frames over the native VLAN. BPDUs from other instances of STP (other VLANs) are propagated across the CST portions of the network by tunneling. PVST+ sends these BPDUs by using a unique multicast address so that the CST switches forward them on to downstream neighbors without interpreting them first. Eventually, the tunneled BPDUs reach other PVST+ switches where they are understood.

Reference: CCNP SWITCH Official Certification Guide

In short, PVST+ supports interoperability between CST switches (run on non-Cisco devices) and PVST switches (run on Cisco devices)

Question 50

Where must you configure switch-level global features on a switch stack?

A. on the stack master
B. on the stack master and each individual stack member
C. on the stack master or any individual stack member
D. on each individual stack member

 

Answer: A

Question 51

Which HSRP feature do you configure so that the device with the highest priority immediately becomes the active router?

A. standby timers
B. preemption
C. standby authentication
D. holdtime

 

Answer: B

Question 52

Which Cisco IOS feature can you use to dynamically identify a connectivity problem between a Cisco device and a designated endpoint?

A. traceroute
B. ICMP Echo IP SLAs
C. IP SLAs threshold monitoring
D. Multi Operation Scheduler IP SLAs

 

Answer: B

Question 53

Which command must you enter to prepare an interface to carry voice traffic?

A. Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode access
B. Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. Switch1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10
D. Switch1(config-if)#switchport host

 

Answer: B (?)

Explanation

In fact only old switches require a trunk to carry voice traffic. Modern switches can carry voice traffic in access mode.

Question 54

Which command do you enter to verify an SVI?

A. show running-configuration | include vlan5
B. show vlan5
C. show interface vlan5
D. show startup-configuration | include vlan5

 

Answer: C

Explanation

An SVI is nearly the same as an physical interface (except it is virtual and dedicated for a VLAN) so we can check it with the “show interface <vlan-id>” or “show ip interface <vlan-id>” command.

Question 55

What two options are causes of network slowness that can result from inter-VLAN routing problems? (Choose two)

A. Root guard disabled on an EtherChannel
B. Packet loss
C. DTP disabled on a switchport
D. BPDU guard enabled on a switchport
E. Hardware forwarding issues

 

Answer: B E

Explanation

Causes for Network Slowness
Packet Loss

In most cases, a network is considered slow when higher-layer protocols (applications) require extended time to complete an operation that typically runs faster. That slowness is caused by the loss of some packets on the network, which causes higher-level protocols like TCP or applications to time out and initiate retransmission.

Hardware Forwarding Issues

With another type of slowness, caused by network equipment, forwarding (whether Layer 2 [L2] or L3) is performed slowly. This is due to a deviation from normal (designed) operation and switching to slow path forwarding. An example of this is when Multilayer Switching (MLS) on the switch forwards L3 packets between VLANs in the hardware, but due to misconfiguration, MLS is not functioning properly and forwarding is done by the router in the software (which drops the interVLAN forwarding rate significantly).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/virtual-lans-vlan-trunking-protocol-vlans-vtp/23637-slow-int-vlan-connect.html#network_slow

Question 56

Which command do you enter to determine the root priority?

A. Show spanning-tree mapping
B. Show spanning-tree summary
C. Show spanning-tree bpdu-filter 1
D. Show spanning-tree backbonefast

 

Answer: B (?) in fact there is no correct answer

Explanation

The “show spanning-tree summary” command displays all the features that are enabled for STP (which includes PortFast BPDU Guard, Loop Guard, Root Guard); this command also displays the number of blocked, listening, learning, and forwarding interfaces. But it does not show the root priority. Other answers are not correct either.

Question 57

Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two)

A. Debug ppp compression
B. Debug ppp negotiation
C. Debug dialer events
D. Debug ppp cbcp
E. Debug dialer packet

 

Answer: B E

Question 58

Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two)

A. debug ppp compression
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug dialer events
D. debug ppp cbcp
E. debug dialer packet

 

Answer: B E

Explanation

According to this link https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/network-infrastructure-documents/troubleshooting-for-pppoe-connection-failure-part-1/ta-p/3147204

The following debug commands can be used to troubleshoot PPPoE connection that failed:

+ debug ppp authentication
+ debug ppp negotiation
+ debug pppoe event

The debug ppp negotiation command enables you to view the PPP negotiation transactions, identify the problem or stage when the error occurs, and develop a resolution.

We are not sure about the “debug dialer packet” command but it seems to be the most reasonable answer left.

Question 59

Which command do you enter to verify that a VLAN has been removed from a trunk?

A. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none
B. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk except vlan 10
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk remove vlan 10
D. Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10

 

Answer: B (?)

Explanation

The command “switchport trunk allowed vlan none” remove all allowed VLANs on a trunk while the “switchport trunk except vlan <vlan-id>” will remove only the <vlan-id> out of the allowed VLAN list. But the question asks about verification so it is a bit unclear.

Question 60

Which command do you enter to determine whether LACP is in use on a device?

A. Show etherchannel summary
B. Show port-channel summary
C. Show etherchannel load-balance
D. Show ip protocols

Answer: B

Question 61

Which channel mode is available to static EhterChannels?

A. On
B. Passive
C. Active
D. Desirable

 

Answer: A

Question 62

Which three commands do you use to verify that IPSec over a GRE tunnel is working properly? (Choose three.)

A. Clear Crypto isakmp
B. PPP encrypt mppe auto
C. Show crypto engine connections active
D. Show crypto ipsec sa
E. Show crypto isakmp sa
F. Debug crypto isakmp

 

Answer: D E F

Question 63

Which combination of values is valid for a router-on-a-stick implementation?

A. IP address 173.15.20.6/20, gateway 173.15.30.1, and VLAN 20
B. FastEhernet interface 0/0.30, IP address 173.15.20.33/27, gateway 173.15.20.1 and VLAN 30
C. IP address 173.15.30.6/26, gateway 173.15.30.62, and VLAN 20
D. FastEthernet interface 0/0.20, IP address 173.15.30.33/27, gateway 173.15.30.1 and VLAN 30

 

Answer: C

Explanation

The gateway and the IP address of the subinterface must be in the same subnet -> only answer C is correct.

Question 64

Which two types of cloud services may require you to alter the design of your network infrastructure? (Choose two)

A. Sudo as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Software as a Service
E. Business as a Service

 

Answer: B C

Explanation

These different types of cloud computing services delivery models are called infrastructure as a service (IaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS).

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/services/ps2961/ps10364/ps10370/ps11104/need-for-cloud-services-catalog_whitepaper.pdf

Question 65

Through which three states does a BGP routing process pass when it establishes a peering session with a neighbor? (Choose three)

A. Open receive
B. Inactive
C. Active
D. Connected
E. Open sent
F. Idle

 

Answer: C E F

Explanation

BGP forms a TCP session with neighbor routers called peers. The BGP session may report in the following states:

+ Idle
+ Connect
+ Active
+ OpenSent
+ OpenConfirm
+ Established

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2756480&seqNum=4

Question 66

Which encryption method does CHAP authentication use for the peer response?

A. EAP
B. MD5
C. DES
D. DSS
E. AES
F. 3DES

 

Answer: B

Question 67

Which two characteristics of stacked switches are true? (Choose two)

A. They reduce management complexity.
B. They are less scalable than modular switches.
C. They can manage multiple IP addresses across multiple switches.
D. They have a single management interface.
E. Each unit in the stack can be assigned its own IP address for administration.

 

Answer: A D

Question 68

Which option describes a drawback of proxy ARP?

A. It overwrites MAC addresses that were learned with inverse ARP.
B. It can make it more difficult for the administrator to locate device misconfigurations.
C. It dynamically establishes Layer 2 tunneling protocols, which increases network overhead.
D. If proxy ARP is configured on multiple devices, the internal Layer 2 network may become vulnerable to DDoS attacks.

 

Answer: D

Question 69

Which feature or value must be configured to enable EIGRPv6?

A. Network statement
B. Shutdown feature
C. Router ID
D. Remote AS

 

Answer: C

Question 70

Which command do you enter to enable local authentication for Multilink PPP on an interface?

A. Router(config-if)# l2tp authentication
B. Router(config)# username router password password1
C. Router(config-if)# ppp chap password password1
D. Router(config)#aaa authentication ppp default local

 

Answer: B

Question 71

Which options are the two differences between HSRP versions 1 and 2? (Choose two)

A. Only HSRP version 2 can be configured to use authentication.
B. Only HSRP version 2 sends hello packets to 224.0.0.2.
C. Only HSRP version 1 sends hello packets to IPv6 multicast address FF02::66.
D. Only HSRP version 1 can be configured with a group number of 4095.
E. Only HSRP version 2 can be configured with a group number of 4095.
F. Only HSRP version 2 sends hello packets to 224.0.0.102.

 

Answer: E F

Explanation

In HSRP version 1, group numbers are restricted to the range from 0 to 255. HSRP version 2 expands the group number range from 0 to 4095 -> E is correct.

HSRP version 2 uses the new IP multicast address 224.0.0.102 to send hello packets instead of the multicast address of 224.0.0.2, which is used by version 1 -> F is correct.

Question 72

Which component of an IPv6 OSPFv3 connection must be configured in IPv4 format?

A. Router ID
B. Primary interface
C. Neighbor address
D. Secondary interface

 

Answer: A

Question 73

Which protocol can be used between administrative domains?

A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. OSPF

 

Answer: C

Explanation

BGP is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) which exchanges routing information between different autonomous systems.

BGP is a path vector protocol. Path vector protocol does not rely on the bandwidth of the links (like OSPF) or hop count (like RIP) or a group of parameters (like EIGRP). Path vector protocol relies on the number of autonomous systems it has to go through. In other words, it choose the path with least number of autonomous systems (shortest AS Path) to reach the destination, provided that the path is loop-free.

Question 74

For which reason can a GRE tunnel have an UP/DOWN status?

A. The tunnel source interface is UP.
B. A tunnel destination is undefined.
C. The tunnel destination address is routable via a route that is separate from the tunnel.
D. The tunnel has been shut down.

 

Answer: B

Explanation

Under normal circumstances, there are only three reasons for a GRE tunnel to be in the up/down state:
– There is no route, which includes the default route, to the tunnel destination address.
– The interface that anchors the tunnel source is down.
– The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself, which results in recursion.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/generic-routing-encapsulation-gre/118361-technote-gre-00.html

Question 75

Which utility do you use to view IP traffic that is switched through the router to locate errors in a TCP stream?

A. Wireshark
B. Packet debugging
C. Ethereal
D. Ping
E. Traceroute

 

Answer: B

Explanation

Cisco routers provide a basic method of viewing IP traffic switched through the router called packet debugging. Packet debugging enables a user to determine whether traffic is travelling along an expected path in the network or whether there are errors in a particular TCP stream. Although in some cases packet debugging can eliminate the need for a packet analyzer, it should not be considered a replacement for this important tool.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1907.html

Question 76

Which command do you enter so that a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

A. Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B. Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast default
C. Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

 

Answer: B

Explanation

If there is a “spanning-tree portfast” answer then it will surely be a correct answer. If not then answer B is the most suitable one even though the “spanning-tree portfast default” command enables PortFast globally on all non-trunking ports, not a single port.

Question 77

Which information is provided by the output of the show snmp engineID command?

A. Information about remote SNMP engines on the network only.
B. Information about the local SNMP engine and remote SNMP engines that are configured on the device.
C. Information about SNMP users and SNMP groups in the network.
D. Information about the local SNMP engine only.

 

Answer: B

Explanation

The “show snmp engineID” displays the identification of the local SNMP engine and all remote engines that have been configured on the router. The following example specifies 00000009020000000C025808 as the local engineID and 123456789ABCDEF000000000 as the remote engine ID, 171.69.37.61 as the IP address of the remote engine (copy of SNMP) and 162 as the port from which the remote device is connected to the local device:

Router# show snmp engineID
Local SNMP engineID: 00000009020000000C025808
Remote Engine ID           IP-addr          Port
123456789ABCDEF000000000   171.69.37.61     162

Question 78

Which term represents the minimum bandwidth provided in a Metro Ethernet connection?

A. UNI
B. CIR
C. EVC
D. PIR

 

Answer: B

Explanation

Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the routing device.

Question 79

What is the default value of the Read-Write-All-SNMP community string?

A. Secret
B. Private
C. Public
D. Cisco

 

Answer: A

Explanation

On Catalyst switches such as the 4000, 5000, and 6000 series that run a regular catalyst Operating System (OS), SNMP is enabled by default with the community strings set to:
+ Read-Only: Public
+ Read-Write: Private
+ Read-Write-all: Secret

With these community strings and the IP address of your switch’s management interface, anyone is able to reconfigure the device. You must change the community strings on the Catalyst switch immediately after you set the device on the network. This is very important.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/simple-network-management-protocol-snmp/7282-12.html

Question 80

Which three effects of using local SPAN are true? (Choose three)

A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine.
B. It prevents SPAN destinations from using port security.
C. It doubles internal switch traffic.
D. It reduces the supervisor engine workload by half.
E. it reduces the load on the switch fabric.

 

Answer: A B C

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

switch#configure terminal switch(config)#interface ethernet1/0 switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10

Which option is the effect of this configuration?

A. It configures the switch port for trunk only.
B. It configures the switch port for voice traffic.
C. It configures the switch port for access and trunk.
D. It configures the switch port for access only.

 

Answer: D

Explanation

With this configuration, the first switchport command “switchport mode trunk” will be overwritten by the “switchport mode access” command and this port becomes an access port.

Question 82

Which command do you enter to allow a new VLAN across a trunk?

A. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk except vlan10
B. Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk remove vlan10
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan10

 

Answer: C

Explanation

The command “switchport trunk allowed vlan add <vlan-id> adds a new VLAN to the previously allowed VLANs on the trunk. For example suppose our trunk is currently allowing VLANs 1, 4 ,5, 9, 12 then the command “switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10” will allow VLANs 1, 4 ,5, 9, 10, 12 on the trunk.

Question 83

Which feature can prevent a rogue device from assuming the role of the root bridge in a switching domain?

A. VTP
B. BPDU Filter
C. DTP
D. Root Guard

 

Answer: D

Explanation

Root Guard ensures that the port on which root guard is enabled is the designated port. If the bridge receives superior BPDUs on a root guard-enabled port, root guard moves this port to a root-inconsistent STP state (which is equal to STP listening state). No traffic is forwarded across this port. In this way, the root guard enforces the position of the root bridge.

Question 84

Which configuration do you apply to an HSRP router so that it is most likely to come up if the active router goes down?

A. Standby 4 preempt
B. Standby 4 priority 110 preempt delay 300
C. Standby 4 priority 115
D. Standby 4 priority 145

 

Answer: A

Question 85

In which two models can control-plane functionality be implemented? (Choose two)

A. Dispersed
B. Distributed
C. Fragmented
D. Centralized
E. Allocated

 

Answer: B D

Explanation

In its simplest form, the control plane provides layer-2 MAC reachability and layer-3 routing information to network devices that require this information to make packet forwarding decisions. In the case of firewalls, the control plane would include stateful flow information for inspection. Control plane functionality can implemented as follows:

+ Distributed – Conventional routers and switches operate using distributed protocols for control, i.e. where each device makes its own decisions about what to do, and communicate relevant information to other devices for input into their decision making process. For example, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), Fabric Path, and routing protocols such as IS-IS and BGP provide distributed control of packet forwarding functionality to networking devices.

+ Centralized – In this case, a centralized controller provides the necessary information for a network element to make a decision. For example, these controller(s) instruct networking devices on where to forward packets by explicitly programming their MAC and FIBs.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN.html

Question 86

Which type of IPv6 ACL is applied first in the order of precedence?

A. TCAM
B. router ACLs
C. Fragmented frames
D. Port ACLs

 

Answer: D

Explanation

As with IPv4 ACLs, IPv6 port ACLs take precedence over router ACLs:
+ When an input router ACL and input port ACL exist in an SVI, packets received on ports to which a port ACL is applied are filtered by the port ACL. Routed IP packets received on other ports are filtered by the router ACL. Other packets are not filtered.
+ When an output router ACL and input port ACL exist in an SVI, packets received on the ports to which a port ACL is applied are filtered by the port ACL. Outgoing routed IPv6 packets are filtered by the router ACL. Other packets are not filtered.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg3750/swv6acl.pdf

Question 87

Which three fields can be marked with QoS? (Choose three)

A. Header checksum
B. IP precedence
C. DSCP
D. Total length
E. Discard Class
F. TTL

 

Answer: B C E

Explanation

For a single class, you can set operations on any two out of the following five fields: CoS, IP Precedence, DSCP, QoS Group, and Discard Class.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/qos/configuration/guide/n1000v_qos/n1000v_qos_3marking.pdf

Question 88

Drag and drop the CSMA components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

 

Answer:

+ 1-persistent: Access mode used for Ethernet network
+ CSMA/CA: Rules that define the system response when a collision occurs on a Wi-fi network
+ CSMA/CD: Rules that define the system response when a collision occurs on an Ethernet network
+ O-peristent: Access mode used in the controlled area network
+ P-persistent: Access mode used for Wi-fi networks

Explanation

1-persistent CSMA is an aggressive transmission algorithm. When the transmitting node is ready to transmit, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits immediately. If busy, then it senses the transmission medium continuously until it becomes idle, then transmits the message (a frame) unconditionally (i.e. with probability=1). In case of a collision, the sender waits for a random period of time and attempts the same procedure again. 1-persistent CSMA is used in CSMA/CD systems including Ethernet.

Non persistent CSMA is a non aggressive transmission algorithm. When the transmitting node is ready to transmit data, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits immediately. If busy, then it waits for a random period of time (during which it does not sense the transmission medium) before repeating the whole logic cycle (which started with sensing the transmission medium for idle or busy) again. This approach reduces collision, results in overall higher medium throughput but with a penalty of longer initial delay compared to 1–persistent.

P-persistent is an approach between 1-persistent and non-persistent CSMA access modes. [1]When the transmitting node is ready to transmit data, it senses the transmission medium for idle or busy. If idle, then it transmits immediately. If busy, then it senses the transmission medium continuously until it becomes idle, then transmits with probability p. If the node does not transmit (the probability of this event is 1-p), it waits until the next available time slot. If the transmission medium is not busy, it transmits again with the same probability p. This probabilistic hold-off repeats until the frame is finally transmitted or when the medium is found to become busy again (i.e. some other node has already started transmitting). In the latter case the node repeats the whole logic cycle (which started with sensing the transmission medium for idle or busy) again. p-persistent CSMA is used in CSMA/CA systems including Wi-Fi and other packet radio systems.

O-persistent
Each node is assigned a transmission order by a supervisory node. When the transmission medium goes idle, nodes wait for their time slot in accordance with their assigned transmission order. The node assigned to transmit first transmits immediately. The node assigned to transmit second waits one time slot (but by that time the first node has already started transmitting). Nodes monitor the medium for transmissions from other nodes and update their assigned order with each detected transmission (i.e. they move one position closer to the front of the queue).[2] O-persistent CSMA is used by CobraNet, LonWorks and the controller area network.

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carrier-sense_multiple_access

Question 89

Drag and drop the PPPoE message types from the left into the sequence in which PPPoE messages are sent on the right.

PADR	1
PADS	2
PADI	3
PADO	4

 

Answer:

1. PADI
2. PADO
3. PADR
4. PADS

Question 90

Drag drop about characteristics of a cloud environment.

Answer:

+ Multitenancy: One or more clients can be hosted with the same physical or virtual infrastructure
+ Scalability: Resources can be added and removed as needed to support current workload and tasks
+ Workload movement: Tasks can be migrated to different physical locations to increase efficiency or reduce cost
+ On-demand: Resources are dedicated only when necessary instead of on a permanent basis
+ Resiliency: Tasks and data residing on a failed server can be seamlessly migrated to other physical resources

Question 91

Drag and drop the network programmability features from the left onto the correct description on the right.

Answer:

+ HTTPS: call to the APIC-EM API from a library
+ JSON: data-structure format that passes parameters for API calls
+ OpenFlow: southbound API
+ RBAC: token-based security mechanism
+ REST: northbound API

Explanation

What is the data format used to send/receive data when making REST calls for APIC-EM?

Javascript Object Notation (JSON) is used to pass parameters when making API calls and is also the returned data format.

What’s RBAC?

The Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) mechanism utilizes security tokens that the controller issues upon successful authentication of a user of the APIC-EM controller. All subsequent requests from the authenticated user must provide a valid token.

Reference: https://communities.cisco.com/docs/DOC-60530#q16

Question 92

Drag and drop the descriptions of performing an initial device configuration from the left onto the correct features or components on the right.

Answer:

+ feature that allows remote access to the console: VTY line
+ feature that confirms a user is permitted to access the device: password
+ value that enables routing when the device is unable to locate a specific route on the routing table: default gateway
+ value that uniquely identifies the device: hostname
+ encrypted value that is used to confirm a user is permitted to access the device: enable secret password

Question 93

Drag and drop the BGP components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Answer:

+ autonomous system number: Value that identifies an administrative domain
+ BGP Speaker: device that is running BGP
+ eBGP: Peer neighbor that located outside of administrative domain of the local device
+ BGP Peer: neighbor device that shares the same AS number as the local device
+ Prefix: value that is advertised with the network keyword

Question 94

Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two)

A. CBWFQ
B. FRTS
C. CAR
D. PQ
E. PBR

 

Answer: A D

Explanation

This module discusses the types of queueing and queueing-related features (such as bandwidth management) which constitute the congestion management QoS features:

Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ): extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. For CBWFQ, you define traffic classes based on match criteria including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. Packets satisfying the match criteria for a class constitute the traffic for that class.

Priority queueing (PQ): With PQ, packets belonging to one priority class of traffic are sent before all lower priority traffic to ensure timely delivery of those packets.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conmgt/configuration/xe-3s/qos-conmgt-xe-3s-book/qos-conmgt-oview.html

Note: Committed Access Rate (CAR) is only used for bandwidth limitation by dropping excessive traffic.

Question 95

Which two statements about EIGRP on IPv6 device are true? (Choose two)

A. It is configured on the interface
B. It is globally configured
C. It is configured using a network statement
D. It is vendor agnostic
E. It supports a shutdown feature

 

Answer: A E

Explanation

This is an example of how to configure EIGRP for IPv6:

interface Serial0/0 no ip address ipv6 address FE80::1 link-local ipv6 address 2010:AB8::1/64 ipv6 enable ipv6 eigrp 1 ! ipv6 router eigrp 1 eigrp router-id 2.2.2.2 no shutdown

As you can see, EIGRP for IPv6 can only be enabled under each interface -> A is correct.

Under EIGRP process there is a shutdown feature where you can turn on or off -> E is correct.

Question 96

In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?

A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

 

Answer: D

Explanation

PortFast-enabled port will ignore listening and learning state and jump to forwarding state immediately so it can only learn MAC addresses in this state.

Question 97

Which protocols does the internet layer in the tcp/ip model encapsulation? (Choose two)

A. smtp
B. tcp
C. arp
D. dns
E. icmp
F. udp

 

Answer: C E

Question 98

You notice that the packets that are sent from a local host to well-know service tcp port 80 of a remote host are sometimes lost you suspect an ACL issue. Which two APIC-EM path trace ACL-analysis options should you use to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)

A. protocol
B. debug
C. destination port
D. QoS
E. Performance monitor

 

Answer: A C

Question 99

Which IOS troubleshooting tool should yo use to direct system messages to your screen?

A. Local SPAN
B. Terminal monitor
C. APIC-EM
D. Log events

 

Answer: B

Question 100

In CDP environment what happens when the cdp interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?

A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
B. CDP operates normally but it can cannot provide any information for that neighbor
C. CDP uses the ip address of another interface for that neighbor
D. CDP operates normally but it cannot provide ip address information for that neighbor

 

Answer: D

Question 101

Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two)

A. The native VLAN
B. The spanning tree protocol
C. The trunking protocol
D. The spanning tree priority
E. The VTP domain

 

Answer: A E

Explanation

The information contained in Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements varies based on the type of device and the installed version of the operating system. Some of the information that Cisco Discovery Protocol can learn includes:
+ Cisco IOS version running on Cisco devices
+ Hardware platform of devices
+ IP addresses of interfaces on devices
+ Locally connected devices advertising Cisco Discovery Protocol
+ Interfaces active on Cisco devices, including encapsulation type
+ Hostname
+ Duplex setting
+ VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) domain
+ Native VLAN

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/cdp/configuration/15-mt/cdp-15-mt-book/nm-cdp-discover.html

Question 102

Drag drop about Administrative Distances of EIGRP and BGP.

 

Answer:

+ Internal EIGRP – 90
+ External EIGRP – 170
+ Internal BGP – 200
+ External BGP – 20